anonymous
Traveller
2467 comments
Posted 15 years ago
Hello,
I'm planning a trip to the south of Spain for the end of the year. I wanna go on December 30th and come back on January 5th. This would be exactly 8 days. Now I've noticed that it says within one month... so, is it not possible to use this ticket if your trip starts at the end of one month and ends in the next? Or does one month refer to within 30 days?
Another question: Has anyone had experience in travelling to Spain from Germany? What is the cheapest way? I read something about 149€ for this trip but then I was told that I have to buy another ticket to the border with France. But wouldn't this be very expensive in the end?
I'd be very fond of some advice.
Kind regards,
Steffi
Peter
Traveller
9331 comments
Hi Steffi.
8 days within ONE month means: you can start whenever you want - from your starting day the ticket is valid for ONE month.
More information here: [u]https://rail.cc/en/interrail-pass-spain[/u]
You have to fill in the form the first day your ticket will be valid (it is the 30th December in your case).
so you can start travelling in Spain on the 30th December at 00:01h in the morning and the last day you can use your ticket is the 29th January 2009 until 23:59h. within this period you can select your travel days flexible. you don't have to fix them on your purchase! :)
for a cheap train ticket from Germany to Spain have a look on [ux]https://rail.shop/sncf[/ux] ... sometimes you can find there cheap ones... maybe Ryanair is also a solution for you. not ecological but ... okay...
I hope this will help you ... have a lot of fun on your tour, Peter :)